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    • CommentAuthorstudent50
    • CommentTimeJul 21st 2009
     
    please let me know which answer is the correct one & why

    on 10/1/08, calendar year company, which is on the accrual basis, signs a $15000 painting contract & makes a $5000 in advance, which you record in Painting expense, if , on 12/31/8 , management tells you that 20% of the work has been completed, you will:

    a. credit painting expenses for 2000;
    b.debit painting extp for 2000;
    c.debit painting expense for 3000;
    d. credit painting expense payable for 5000

    thank you in advance
    Thankful People: mulalam
  1.  
    I will try to answer the best I can, anyone can correct me if I am wrong.

    I think that the situation is that you are a company that is hiring someone to paint some shizzle for you. The total painting that will done for you will cost $15,000. When the contract is signed, you make a $5,000 payment as a down payment. However at the end of the period (year), only 20% of the work is actually done. So here's what I would say...

    When you sign the contract, you owe that money so I would record the full liability up front as such

    Prepaid Painting Expense $15,000
    Painting Expense Payable $15,000

    When you pay that $5,000 downpayment, you would reduce that liability as such.

    Painting Expense Payable $5,000
    Cash $5,000

    Or you could combine the two entries as such

    Prepaid Painting Expense $15,000
    Painting Expense Payable $10,000
    Cash $5,000

    However, at the end of the period (year) only 20% of the work is done so you would need to accrue that 20% of expenses as follows

    Painting Expense (15,000 * .2) 3,000
    Prepaid Painting Expense 3,000

    So assuming that the question is asking about this end of period accrual entry the answer would be C.

    That's what I would say but I am not sure if I really should record the full liability up front when the contract is signed because I guess the argument could be made that you do not owe anything, even with a contract, unless the work is performed. However, even with this method, you could accrue the liability with the prepaid asset and do the same entry so I still think that the answer would be C.
    Thankful People: mulalam
  2.  
    I just noticed that my spaces for my journal entries did not translate, so obviously the first entry is the debit and the second (and third if applicable) is the credit
    • CommentAuthormulalam
    • CommentTimeAug 20th 2009
     
    for 20% work completed C is the right answer.
    • CommentAuthorLargeCat
    • CommentTimeAug 22nd 2009 edited
     
    the answer could be C.

    because, it is "accrual basic".

    don't care the money you payed. only concern the exactly happening.

    total $15000 , happening 20% ,so , it could be : 15000 * 20% = $3000 , debit it.
  3.  
    well i agree with large cat because it seems that answer is C is the right option!
  4.  
    Its a very useful discussion here and you guys have explained this problem so nicely!



 

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